Why do you believe that the 1st round pick has to be the Saints' original one, and not the one they just got from the Cheaters? It's still a first round pick. And the Cheaters can either accept the deal or not.
Is anyone really paying attetion here.?
Pats and Saints wanted to trade Butler for Cooks straight up, but since Butler had not signed his tender they could not include him.
Pats instead gave Saints their 1st rnd pick #32,replacing Butler in the trade and establishing what they think Butler is worth.
That is the pick the Pats want back. If it was as simple as you say in your estimation Saints can decide to give whatever 1st rounder they want like the lesser valued #32 1st rounder to Pats if they do not match, then Butler would have already have signed Saints offer sheet and Saints would have given it to Pats, and Pats would have announced they will not match and get the 32 pick. Done deal.
So tell me how this works. Why do Saints get to decide, why can't Pats decide? see my logic? It has to be in cba that original team 1st rounder is what is in play here.
for ex if Browns have 1st pick in a draft and also picks #29 30 31 and 32. Does this mean they can sign 4 players with 1st round tenders and ship off only the 29 30 31 and 32 for ea player? While keeping their original #1 pick? And who decides which pick goes to which team?
It can only be original team pick in play. or as I just found out in the links below, if possible if you traded away your original pick previously and acquired a beter pick in 1st round NFL would likely allow you to use that pick to sign a 1st rnd offer sheet player.
PS This is all I can find on this subject http://sports.stacke...st-round-tender
https://nfllabor.files.wordpress.com/2010/01/collective-bargaining-agreement-2011-2020.pdf article 9 sec 3
Edited by cba fan, Yesterday, 08:45 PM.